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Post by marie on Sept 26, 2012 15:09:02 GMT
Hello all.
I was reading an article and I came across this sentence:
>Referees are under instruction to send players off if any of them swears.
Shouldn't it be "swear" no S?
Thanks.
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Post by Tone on Sept 26, 2012 19:32:51 GMT
>>Referees are under instruction to send players off if any of them swears.<
So who would be sent off, just the swearer or all the players?
Tone
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Post by Geoff on Sept 27, 2012 7:54:00 GMT
To whom does the 'them' refer, the 'referees' or the 'players'?
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Post by Sue M-V on Sept 27, 2012 9:37:11 GMT
Referees are under instruction to send players off if any of them swears. I don't think I'd react to this particularly. I take it to mean "if any one of them swears". I maight say "If any of you knows who stole my bicycle, please come and see me after the meeting," especially if I think that there's only one of those present who might know such a thing. "Any one of you" wouldn't sit very well, so I'd be unlikely to say that. Sue |
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Post by hubertus on Sept 27, 2012 10:59:34 GMT
>>Referees are under instruction to send players off if any of them swears.<So who would be sent off, just the swearer or all the players? Tone Good point, Tone. This is just the sort of ambiguous sentence that warrants an apostrophe. |
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Post by Alan Palmer on Sept 27, 2012 13:06:13 GMT
>>Referees are under instruction to send players off if any of them swears.<So who would be sent off, just the swearer or all the players? Tone Good point, Tone. This is just the sort of ambiguous sentence that warrants an apostrophe. An apostrophe? Where? Referee's are under instruction to send players off if any of them swears? Referees are under instruction to send player's off if any of them swears? Or Referees are under instruction to send players off if any of them swear's? |
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Post by hubertus on Sept 27, 2012 13:13:20 GMT
Sorry, Alan: I was being flippant, but was too abstruse!
My point being that ambiguity in written English is almost never resolved by the use of an apostrophe [of possession]. Consequently, there is no compelling reason to retain it. ;D
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Post by Twoddle on Sept 27, 2012 15:34:19 GMT
Sorry, Alan: I was being flippant, but was too abstruse! My point being that ambiguity in written English is almost never resolved by the use of an apostrophe [of possession]. Consequently, there is no compelling reason to retain it. ;D Oi! On t'other thread, if you don't mind! |
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Post by Alan Palmer on Sept 27, 2012 17:48:38 GMT
I'm locking this thread before it gets even further off-topic. By all means do continue being flippant in the main forum, but remember this is the "Quick" questions forum.
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