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Post by marie on Nov 21, 2016 18:59:42 GMT
Hi,
Assuming for a moment I was a prostitute, which of the following sentences is corrrect...
a) I booked a hotel room for a client and me.
b) I booked a hotel room for a client and I.
Merci d'avance.
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Post by Dave Miller on Nov 21, 2016 19:27:07 GMT
a) is correct.
Imagine you booked it for just you. Would you say: I booked a room for me, or I booked a room for I ?
Of course, you'd say the first one. For the same reason, it's "for ... and me" when there's more than just you.
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Post by Twoddle on Nov 21, 2016 19:39:55 GMT
I'd say neither of those is correct, Marie, and that it should read, "I booked a hotel room for a client and myself", because the personal pronoun is reflexive in this instance, as I am doing something to/for myself.
I stand to be corrected - what do others think?
Being pedantic, I'd also suggest that "... I was a ..." should be in the subjunctive mood, i.e., "... I were a ...", as you're putting forward an idea that's contrary to the probable situation (I hope!).
(Sorry, Dave; I was typing while you were posting. I agree that it's definitely not "... for a client and I", however.)
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Post by Dave Miller on Nov 21, 2016 20:59:20 GMT
I agree with some of what you say, Twod.
I took the original question to be about the typical "for ... and me" not "for ... and I" problem, so gave the typical answer. (The answer also works well when the subject of the sentence isn't "I". He booked the room ... / they booked ... / the travel agent booked ... etc.)
I'm not at all sure about the subjunctive there. if the sentence began with "If", then I'd agree it should take the subjunctive: If I were a prostitute ...
But it didn't, and I wonder how many layers of hypothesis you're bringing in. Marie asks that we do actually ASSUME a circumstance. So we are assuming that that IS the circumstance. We wouldn't assume that that BE the circumstance.
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Post by Twoddle on Nov 21, 2016 22:31:38 GMT
I took the original question to be about the typical "for ... and me" not "for ... and I" problem, so gave the typical answer. (The answer also works well when the subject of the sentence isn't "I". He booked the room ... / they booked ... / the travel agent booked ... etc.) I hear it so often nowadays, but it always jars with me. If "He gave it to I" is obviously incorrect, how can anyone imagine that "He gave it to (John and) I" can be acceptable? OK, but in "Assuming for a moment I was a prostitute ...", what part of the verb is "was"? If it's the indicative mood it can only be the past tense, but I think Marie's using it in the present, which, were I to be pedantic, wouldn't seem to add up. Actually, in re-reading it, it could refer to the past tense, but assuming it doesn't ... . (We're getting a bit far away from the original question here, but it's an interesting point.)
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Post by Little Jack Horner on Nov 28, 2016 18:43:14 GMT
In the dialect of Dorset (a county in southern England), the first person singular pronoun was frequently used as the objective of a verb — he gave it to I — with no "confusing" third party involved. Sadly, one hears the Dorset dialect less and less frequently in this modern age. I also used to enjoy hearing the question, "where's that to then?" or "where's it at?" meaning "where is it?" delivered in a pleasant west country burr. Even the west country burr is seldom heard these days.
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